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2026-02-27

Talked with Kifung and Conan about how 3d MS will transport brane to brane. There are some partial success, but still more to be understood.

One interesting thing is that they somehow don't need to specify which side is 3dA-side and which is 3d B-side. Their prescription is somewhat simple, just take fiber product of Lagrangians in (possibly shifted) (real or complex) symplectic manifold, then apply Fuk or Coh to the fiber product.

One thing we need to be worried about is that: mirror symmetry depends on a choice of torus, otherwise it won't be functorial. So, it is wrong to say, I give you a complex manifold, and then I find 'the' mirror of it. What might be better said is that, I give you a Kahler manifold with roughly, a Lagrangian torus fibration, then the mirror is another Kahler manifold with torus manifold. Then we can check if the two sides are mirror to each other.

Toric Case

What do I know about toric mirror symmetry?

In this story, no skeleton, since that already favors one side to be the A-side.

Musing on 3d MS for points

Now, how to think about 3d MS? It couldn't possibly be a functor, sending any holomorphic Lagrangian brane on one side to something on the other side. Since $T^*pt$ is mirror to $T^*pt$.

It is more like, there is a theory called physics. That theory is something like a 2-category, which admits a functor to Cat. So that a theory $T$, under this functor is sent to a category $C(T)$. Now, this category can be realized either using A-model, namely, have some space $X_A(T)$, then apply A-Cat to A-space, we get $C_A(X_A(T)) = C(T) = C_B(X_B(T))$.

That means, we don't have a functor from A-Space to B-space, or vice versa. Rather we have two different realization of the category.

Pure Gauge Case

The slogan is that, for $G$ compact Lie, like $S^1, SU(2)$, we have $T^*[1](pt/G) = \mathfrak{g}^\vee / G$ is 3d dual to $BFM(G)$.

Why we need a shifted cotangent $T^*[1]M$? Here are two possible origins:

What if I forgot to do the shift?

Suppose we have two Lagrangian brane living over the zero-section $M \in T^*M$, $Y_i \to M$.

$$ Z_1 = Z_0 \times_M T^*M $$ Namely, the space acquires a new cotangent fiber direction. And that will make the whole things 0-symplectic.

Sanity check, $Z_1$ should be 0-shifted symplectic manifold. Yes, by PTVV, Calaque. intersection of n-Lag will give you (n-1)-symp.

Give me one example

OK, to play it safe and interesting, I will give you a 'real' one $$ X = T^*[1](B U(1)) , \quad X^! = T^* \C^*.$$ The is the pure gauge, real group case.

A Lag $L$ in $X$ is a symplectic space $Y \to pt$, but with a Hamiltonian $S^1$-action, so we have $$ Y/U(1) \to \R / U(1). $$

What's the 3d dual Lag? wait wait, here you are asking as if 3d mirror symmetry is a functor, no it is more like correspondence, you cannot ask for too much.

And be aware, here I somehow broke the symmetry. I didn't ask for $Y$ to be Kahler, and I cannot go back and do B-model on stuff here. Should I insist on Kahler? Or should I stick with hol'c symplectic stuff?

Here is what Kifung and Conan says

Reading their paper

I will work with the more restrictive holomorphic symp setting.

What is the space they consider?

What do you do then? You need to define the A-hom and B-hom between these Branes.

It is very confusing at this moment: